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The zero to the negative power is undefined. Am I right?

trafalgarLaww
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2 Answers2

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Traditionally, $x^{-k}$ denotes the multiplicative inverse of $x$, $x^{-1}$, raised to the $k^{th}$ power. For instance, in $\mathbf{R}$, we have that the inverse of $2$ is $\frac{1}{2}$ so that $2^{-1}=\frac{1}{2}$. Thus, $2^{-k}=(\frac{1}{2})^k=\frac{1}{2^k}.$ In the case of $0$, there is no multiplicative inverse in $\mathbf{R}$ (or in any field, for that matter), so that the symbol $0^{-1}$ makes no sense. For instance, can you find a real number $r$ so that $r\cdot 0=1$? The answer is no.

In short, $0^{-1}$ does not make sense without further interpretation.

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Indeed, raising $0$ to a negative power implies division by zero, which is undefined. Explicitly, for $a>0$: $$0^{-a}=\frac1{0^a}=\frac10.$$

G Tony Jacobs
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