Axiom of completeness: Every set that is bounded above has a least upper bound.
My attempt:
Let $A = \{a_n : n \in \mathbb{N}\}$, satisfying $a_1 < a_2 < a_3 < \cdots a_n$, $b_n$ be a sequence such that $b_1 > b_2 > b_3 > \cdots$ and consider the following closed intervals in $\mathbb{R}$:
$I_1 = [a_1, b_1],I_2 = [a_2, b_2],I_3 = [a_3, b_3],\cdots, I_n = [a_n, b_n]$. By the nested interval property, there is $x = {\bigcap}_{k=1}^\infty I_k$. Further, since the length of $I_n$ tends to $0$, x is unique.
I claim that $x = \sup A$. Proof:
Let $y \neq x$ be an upper bound for $A$. Then $y \geq a_n \forall n\in\mathbb{N}$. Now, since $y \in \mathbb{R}$, then either $y \in I_k$ for some $k \in \mathbb{N}$ (case 1), or $y \notin I_k, \forall k \in \mathbb{N}$ (case 2).
Case 1:
Assume $y \in I_k$ for some $k \in \mathbb{N}$. Then there is no $I_w$, $w > k$, such that $y \notin I_w$, otherwise we must have $a_w > y$, and then $y$ wouldn't be an upper bound. Further, since $I_k \subseteq I_p$ for all $p < k$, we must have $y \in I_n, \forall n \in \mathbb{N}$. Therefore $y = x$.
Case 2:
Assume $y \notin I_k, \forall k \in \mathbb{N}$. Since $y$ is an upper bound, we must have $y > b_1$. But $x = {\bigcap}_{k=1}^\infty I_k$, so $x \in I_2$, therefore $y > x$.
Thus, if $y$ is an upper bound, then $y \geq x$ (I omitted the proof that $x$ is an upper bound because if follows from a short contradiction argument).
Is all of this correct?