So I was solving problems in my textbook and I got stuck on this question. It says:
Prove that:
$ ^nC_0^2 - ^nC_1^2 + ^nC_2^2 - ^nC_3^2 + ... + (-1)^{n} .^nC_n^2 $ = $ 0 $ or $ \frac {(-1)^{n/2} n!} {\frac{n}{2}! \frac{n}{2}!} $ ,
when $ n $ is odd/even.
So I tried to bring the required terms and my idea was to multiply $ (1+x)^n $ with $(x - 1)^n$ .
$$ (1+x)^n = ^nC_0 + ^nC_1 x + ^nC_2 x^2 + ... ^nC_n x^n $$ $$ (x-1)^n = ^nC_0x^n - ^nC_1 x^{n-1} + ^nC_2 x^{n-2} + ... (-1)^n .^nC_n $$
I can see that if I multiply the two equations, then I will get the terms I need with their required sign. LHS will contain $ (x^2 - 1)^n $ .
But along with that, there will be many other terms on the RHS which will probably be impossible for me to get rid of. Am I going in the right way or is there an entirely different procedure?