I saw some vague similar cases here but they are not equal to this. I used wolframalpha to find out that the limes of it is 0. Also I have a solution to this, but because I dont know if my last step is okay I'll write my solution here :
Step1: We can use L'hopital since we have 0/0 from the beginning
After applying L'hopital we get $\lim _{x \to 0} \frac {x\sin x\ } {x \cos x+sinx}$
Step2: Rewritting it as $\lim _{x \to 0} \frac {\ x \ } {1+ \ (x \ cos x)/sinx}$
Step3: making use of tanx so that we have $\lim _{x \to 0} \frac {\ x \ tanx } {1+ \ x}$ since $\frac {xcosx} {sinx}$ is equal to $\frac {x}{tanx}$
Step4: This one is the step I am not really sure I can use or is correct, but because we do not have 0/0 I'd rewrite it again as $\lim _{x\to 0} \frac {\ \ tanx } {(1+ \ x)x^{-1}}$ so that it becomes 0/0 and we can use L'hopital again.
Step5: Using L'hopital we get $\lim _{x\to 0} \frac {\frac {1} {cos^{2}x} \ } {\frac{1}{-x^{2}}}$ which is $\lim _{x\to 0} \frac {-x^{2} } {cos^{2}x}$ where we could use our calculation rules so that we have $\frac {0}{-1}$ which brings us to 0.