using Stirling's formula or the fact that $e^n \geq \frac{n^n}{n!}$.
one finds that the limit goes to $+\infty$
however, I found another result (probably false) using this method :
$$n!^{\frac1n} = e^{\frac1n\ln n!} = e^{\frac1n \sum_{k=1}^{n}\ln k} = \exp(\frac{\ln 2}{n} + \frac{\ln 3}{n} + \cdots+\frac{\ln n}{n} ) $$
$\frac{\ln 2}{n} + \frac{\ln 3}{n} + \cdots+\frac{\ln n}{n} \to 0$
and $x \mapsto e^x$ is continuous. "Hence" $\lim_{n \to \infty} n!^{\frac1n} = 1$
I can't spot the mistake.
what did I do wrong ?