Intuitively, I would think the derivative of the function at x = 0 would be 0, since f(0) = 1, but I am not sure if there is supposed to be a more rigorous way of doing this. Taking the same approach from this post: Show that the function $g(x) = x^2 \sin(\frac{1}{x}) ,(g(0) = 0)$ is everywhere differentiable and that $g′(0) = 0$ I find that
$\lim_{h\to0} \frac{f(h) - f(0)}{h} = \lim_{h\to0} \frac{e^h + h^3 cos(\frac{1}{h}) - 1}{h}$
This seems to imply that the derivative doesn't exist. Is this the case or am I on the wrong track? Any help would be greatly appreciated.