Although I'm already in calculus and doing good, I don't understand joint variation! Given that $x$ is directly proportional with $y$ and inversely proportional with $z,$ we have that $$\dfrac xy = c_1\quad\text{and}\quad xz = c_2;$$ then why can we combine them to conclude that $$xz = ky \ ?$$ Doesn't $xz$ have a fixed value regardless of what $y$ is?
For example, consider this typical problem:
Given that $x$ is directly proportional with $y$ and inversely proportional with $z:$
if $x = 20, y = 10, z = 5,$
then $x = ? , y = 100, z = 18.$
The given answer: $x = 500/9.$ But $xz = 100$ in the first situation, and $xz = 1000$ in the second situation, and $xz$ is supposed to be a constant; so, how can this be?