Compute the sum $\sum_{k=0}^{n}(-1)^k k^n\binom{n}{k} $
I've seen a solution along the following lines here, page 3:
Consider $(1+x)^n=\sum_{k=0}^{n}\binom{n}{k}x^k$. ($\star$) We prove by induction that $\sum_{k=0}^{n}(-1)^k k^t\binom{n}{k}=0$ for $t< n$. We prove this by differentiating ($\star$) t times, setting $x=-1$ and using the inductive step.
Now if we differentiate $(\star)$ n times we get: $n!=\sum_{k=0}^{n} k \cdot (k-1) \dots \cdot (k-(n-1)) \binom{n}{k}x^{k-n}=\sum_{k=0}^{n} k^n\binom{n}{k}x^{k-n}$ (by the inductive step).
So $n!=\sum_{k=0}^{n} k^n\binom{n}{k}x^{k-n}$ and by setting $x=-1$ and multiplying by $(-1)^n$ we get $\sum_{k=0}^{n}(-1)^k k^n\binom{n}{k}=n! (-1)^n $.
My question is, starting from $(1+x)^n=\sum_{k=0}^{n}\binom{n}{k}x^k$, if we differentiate it n times, most of the RHS terms will vanish ,leaving us with $n!=n!$, not $n!=\sum_{k=0}^{n} k \cdot (k-1) \dots \cdot (k-(n-1)) \binom{n}{k}x^{k-n}$. How is that a valid step and also how can the sum in question be evaluated?