My question is related to a formula in this paper
In that paper, they try to expand Dirac delta function $\delta(x)$, which has the property $$ \int \delta(x)f(x) \, dx = f(0), $$ using Hermite polynomial. So they write
$$ \delta(x) = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}A_n H_{2n}(x)e^{-x^2} $$
and get the coefficient $A_n$ by
$$ \begin{align} \int H_{2m}(x) \delta(x) \, dx &= \int H_{2m}(x) \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}A_n H_{2n}(x)e^{-x^2} \\ \Rightarrow H_{2m}(0) &= A_m \sqrt {\pi}4^m (2m)! \\ \Rightarrow A_m &= \frac{(-1)^m}{m! 4^m \sqrt{\pi}} ~~~~~~~~(H_{2n}(0)=\frac{(2n)!(-1)^n}{n!}) \end{align} $$
Usual $\delta(x)$ function has property that it equals to zero for $x\neq 0$, but $\delta(x) \rightarrow \infty $ for $x=0$
Now following above expansion, if we plug $x=0$ to the formula, we get
$$ \begin{align} \delta(0) & = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}A_n H_{2n}(0) \\ & = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(2n)!}{n!n!4^n\sqrt{\pi}} \end{align} $$
But this series converges, so the usual property of $\delta(x)$ is not recovered. So my question is, is this expansion for $\delta(x)$ valid?