Prove the identity: $$\sum_{k=0}^{\min[p,q]}{p\choose k}{q\choose k}{n+k\choose p+q}={n\choose p}{n\choose q}.$$
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1See George E Andrews, David M Bressoud, Identities in combinatorics III: Further aspects of ordered set sorting, Discrete Mathematics, Volume 49, Issue 3, May 1984, Pages 223--236 ( http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/0012365X84901596 ) for combinatorial proofs. (Actually, see part I of this series.) – darij grinberg Jul 03 '15 at 13:16
2 Answers
$$ \begin{align} \sum_k\binom{p}{k}\binom{q}{k}\binom{n+k}{p+q} &=\sum_{j,k}\binom{p}{k}\binom{q}{k}\binom{n}{p+q-j}\binom{k}{j}\tag{1}\\ &=\sum_{j,k}\binom{p}{k}\binom{n}{p+q-j}\binom{q}{j}\binom{q-j}{q-k}\tag{2}\\ &=\sum_{j}\binom{p+q-j}{q}\binom{n}{p+q-j}\binom{q}{j}\tag{3}\\ &=\sum_{j}\binom{n-q}{n-p-q+j}\binom{n}{q}\binom{q}{j}\tag{4}\\ &=\sum_{j}\binom{n-q}{p-j}\binom{n}{q}\binom{q}{j}\tag{5}\\ &=\binom{n}{p}\binom{n}{q}\tag{6} \end{align} $$ Explanation
$(1)$ $\displaystyle\binom{n+k}{p+q}=\sum_j\binom{n}{p+q-j}\binom{k}{j}$
$(2)$ $\displaystyle\binom{q}{k}\binom{k}{j}=\binom{q}{j}\binom{q-j}{q-k}$
$(3)$ $\displaystyle\sum_k\binom{p}{k}\binom{q-j}{q-k}=\binom{p+q-j}{q}$
$(4)$ $\displaystyle\binom{p+q-j}{q}\binom{n}{p+q-j}=\binom{n-q}{n-p-q+j}\binom{n}{q}$
$(5)$ $\displaystyle\binom{n-q}{n-p-q+j}=\binom{n-q}{p-j}$
$(6)$ $\displaystyle\sum_j\binom{n-q}{p-j}\binom{q}{j}=\binom{n}{p}$
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+1: This was the same approach I was trying to use, but I made an error when applying Identity (2) and got myself into a mess that didn't simplify. – Mike Spivey Jan 17 '13 at 17:46
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1Very nice. (This one word "Explanation" sort of spoils the fun of an answer containing "only" a calculation. Wouldn't a horizontal line do?) – Martin Jan 17 '13 at 19:20
Since $$[x^i] (1-x)^{-(r+1)} =\binom{r+i}{i}=\binom{r+i}{r},\qquad (*)$$ we can write $$ \binom{n}{p} \binom{n}{q} = [x^{n-p}y^{n-q}] (1-x)^{-(p+1)} (1-y)^{-(q+1)}. $$ This can be rewritten as a complex integral $$ \frac{1}{(2\pi i)^2} \int x^{p-n-1} y^{q-n-1} (1-x)^{-(p+1)} (1-y)^{-(q+1)} dx dy, $$ where $x$ and $y$ both traverse small counterclockwise circles around the origin. Now, make the substitution $$x = z\frac{1+w}{1+z}, \qquad y=w\frac{1+z}{1+w}.$$ Since $$dx \wedge dy = \frac{1-zw}{(1+z)(1+w)} dz \wedge dw$$ this changes the integral to $$ \frac{1}{(2\pi i)^2} \int z^{p-n-1} w^{q-n-1} (1+w)^p (1+z)^q (1-zw)^{-(p+q+1)} dz\, dw.$$ On the surface of integration, $z$ and $w$ will now remain in small annuli around the origin. Remaining inside the region where the integrand is holomorphic, we can deform the surface of integration until $z$ and $w$ move counterclockwise around small circles around the origin. This does not change the value of the integral, so it will equal $$ [z^{n-p} w^{n-q}] (1+w)^p (1+z)^q (1-zw)^{-(p+q+1)}. $$ Using (*) and the binomial theorem, this is equal to $$ \sum_{\ell\in{\Bbb Z}} \binom{p}{n-q-\ell} \binom{q}{n-p-\ell} \binom{p+q+\ell}{p+q}, $$ where the binomial coefficient $\binom{i}{j}$ is taken to vanish if $j$ is not in $\{0,1,\dots,i\}$. Substituting $\ell:=n-p-q+k$ now gives the desired result.
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Nice contour integration (+1). I've rarely, if ever, used contour integration to prove a binomial identity. I tried multiplying both sides by $x^py^q$, summing, and comparing the coefficients in $(1+x)^n(1+y)^n=(1+x+y+xy)^n$, but couldn't get it to work. – robjohn Jan 17 '13 at 15:51