Let $G=\langle g_1,\dots,g_m\mid g_1^{k_1}=\dots=g_m^{k_m}=1\rangle$. (Where $k_1,\dots,k_m$ are integers.)
Let $\psi:G\to G$ be a surjective homomorphism.
Is $\psi$ necessarily injective?
In other words, if $x\in\ker\psi$, then is $x=1$?
Thanks.
"Intuitively" it seems true that $\psi$ is injective, but I can't seem to find a proof for it.