As the title states, I need to find the limit for $x\left(x + 1 - \frac{1}{\sin(\frac{1}{1+x})}\right)$ as $x \rightarrow \infty$, as part of a larger proof I am working on.
I believe the answer is 0. I think that to start, I can show that $\frac{1}{\sin(\frac{1}{1+x})} \rightarrow x + 1$ for large x. By looking at the series expansion for Sin, it's clear that Sin approximates to $\frac{1}{1+x}$ for large x, as the higher-power entries in the series $\frac{1}{1+x}^3 + \frac{1}{1+x}^5 + ...$ would disappear faster, but would it be sufficient to state this? Is there not a more rigorous way of showing this to be true?
If my approach is entirely wrong, or there is a more elegant way of reaching the answer, please share.