Our professor gave a problem asking to rearrange the alternating harmonic series:
$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n} $
such that the rearrangement equals infinity.
So I was doing some searching and found this property that the rearranged sums of the alternating harmonic series sum to:
$\ln(2) + \frac{1}{2}\ln(\frac{p}{n}) $
Where $p$ is the number of positive terms listed followed by $n$ negative terms in the rearrangement.
So my idea is that in order for the rearrangement to go to infinity, either $p$ is going to have to be infinite, or $n$ is going to have to be $0$. Would this make sense for the problem? It almost seems like this would not be a valid rearrangement of the alternating harmonic series, since I would basically be rearranging it to be the normal harmonic series.