Let $a,b\in\mathbb{R}$ such that $a<b$ and $f\colon [a,b]\to \mathbb{R}$ a non-negative function. Is then $$\|f\|_1=\sup \{\int_{[a,b]}\tau(x)dx \mid \tau \text{ step function and } \tau\le f\} ?$$ I have seen it to be true under additionally assuming that $f$ is Riemann-integrable. Therefore, I initially tried to find a counterexample (with a non Riemann-integrable function). But then I came across here Lebesgue integrable implies Riemann integrable?, so that the equality probably is true (note that simple functions are more general as step functions!). And now I don't know whether it's true or not (I tend to vote for wrong, but I still don't have a counterexample)) .. I appreciate any help.
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That's actually close to the definition of integral (in the Lebesgue sense) of a non-negative measurable function, where you consider simple functions in place of step functions, see here. – Anguepa Dec 29 '18 at 15:42
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It would be good if we are given a definition of $|f|1.$ Is it $|f|_1 = \int{[a,b]}|f(x)|,dx?$ – Idonknow Dec 29 '18 at 15:53
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@Idonknow Oh sorry. yes, it is – Dec 29 '18 at 15:57
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I'm afraid this is not true for all (Lebesgue) integrable functions.
Consider the indicator function on $[a,b]\setminus \mathbb{Q}$, namely $\mathbb{I}_{[a,b]\setminus \mathbb{Q}} : [a,b]\rightarrow \{0,1\}$ where $\mathbb{I}_{[a,b]\setminus \mathbb{Q}}(x)=1$ for $x\in [a,b]\setminus \mathbb{Q}$ and $0$ otherwise.
This function only differs from the indicator function on $[a,b]$ on countably many points, so $$ \int \mathbb{I}_{[a,b]\setminus \mathbb{Q}} = \int \mathbb{I}_{[a,b]}=b-a. $$ However clearly any step function $s:[a,b]\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ with $s\leq \mathbb{I}_{[a,b]\setminus \mathbb{Q}}$ maps into $(-\infty, 0]$.
It is true however for continuous functions on $[a,b]$, since these are Riemann-integrable.
Anguepa
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