I want to prove that $$ \binom nm \sum_{i=0}^{m} (-1)^i\frac{\binom mi}{n-m+1+i}=\frac{1}{1+n}\\ $$ $$ \binom nm [ \frac{\binom m0}{n-m+1} +(-1)^1\frac{\binom m1}{n-m+2}+... ..+(-1)^m\frac{\binom mm}{n+1}] =\frac{1}{1+n}\\ $$
Assume that $m=1$,then it's equal to $1/(n+1)$. $$ \binom n1 [ \frac{1}{n} -\frac{1}{n+1}] =\frac{1}{1+n}\\ $$
Assume that $m=2$,then it's equal to $1/(n+1)$.
$$ \binom n2 [ \frac{1}{n-1} -\frac{2}{n}+\frac{1}{n+1}] =\frac{1}{1+n}\\ $$
How to prove that for $\forall m$, this formula is equal to $1/(n+1)$?