I have been trying for several days to prove the equality of the title, but without any positive results. I know I have to first prove that if m divides n (it has to be multiple of m) then $p^{m}-1$ divide $p^{n}-1$.
That is the one that I have been able to demonstrate knowing that there is a quotient for this division that has zero rest and is the following: $\sum_{i=1}^{\alpha}(p^{(\alpha-i)\times m})$.
Someone could help me relate it to the title and get the proof.
Thanks.