Going with this explanation of Peano's Axioms, I cannot understand how/where the successor function is definitively stated to be the very next number in the case of natural numbers. In this treatment, it says
The successor of $x$ is sometimes denoted $Sx$ instead of $x′$. We then have $1=S0$, $2=S1=SS0$, and so on.
Again, I don't see from the axioms how very next is guaranteed. Neither further on when addition is defined "based on the axioms." It seems a successor function could map "nextness" in many ways, e.g. $Sx$ could be $x+56$, or whatever as long as $Sx$ was something "further up the natural number line." So yes, I know I'm missing something here. . . .
Update
I finally returned to this issue after stumbling across some other sources. Basically, the whole issue of $S$ "jumping around" and not being a strict "next one up the number chain" can be attacked from exposing and forbidding "loop" situations.
By allowing a successor with $x_3$ circling back to $x_1$, we have with such an $S$ created a "fixed-point" for $S$
$$S(S(S(x_1))) = x_1$$
which is not allowed by the injectivity axiom. See this discussion, which demonstrates a $S(x_k) = x_k$ situation. My example is the same situation, only two extra mappings.
Still, the proof in the proofwiki relies on a hard contradiction backed up by the Peano Induction axiom -- which leaves me a bit pale. Does any sort of $S$ definition with any "fixed point"/loop truly force -- with the induction and injectivity axioms -- "very next one?" Intuitively I can see that any "doubling back" makes for a fixed-point, but....
