I'm working through Mendelson's Introduction to Mathematical Logic and I'm having trouble proving the following statement:
'' There is no first-order theory $K$ whose models are exactly the interpretations with finite domains." (ex. 2.57)
I've been trying to argue that any theory $K$ with a model with finite domain also has a model with infinite domain, since we may extend the finite domain into an infinite one. I am however not sure how to go about this formally. I was wondering whether I am on the right track at all an if so, if anyone could help me formalise this idea.