I conjecture that : $$\forall b\in\mathbb{N}\setminus\lbrace0,1\rbrace,\lim\limits_{x\to 1^{-}}\frac{1}{\ln(1-x)}\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}x^{b^n}=-\frac{1}{\ln(b)}$$ Which is well verified through numerical simulations.
Maybe I'm missing something obvious here, but I have absolutely no idea as of how to prove it. Uniform convergence is of course of no help here, the series $\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}1$ being trivially divergent.
Any insight ?