I'm learning about Lie groups, and do not have a thorough background in differentiable manifolds.
I have the following definition:
For a map $F:M \to N$ between manifolds and $a \in M$, the differential is given by $dF_a:T_aM \to T_{F(a)}N$ is given by $dF_a(X_a)(f) = X_a(f\circ F)$ where $f:M \to R$ is $C^{\infty}$.
How do you derive the statment:
$d(exp)_{0}:T_0 \frak{g} \to$ $T_eG$ is the identity map
I understand that because $\frak{g}$ is a vector space, it is equivalent to its tangent space, so I see why the statement is well defined.
I have seen two explanations for the above, neither of which I get:
1.
Fix $X \in T_eG$. Then for $s \in \mathbb{R}$ $exp(sX) = \gamma^{X}(s)$, where $\gamma^X$ is the associated 1-parameter group to $X$. (So far so good).
Then they say: $d(exp)_0(X) \underset{(1)}{=} \frac{d}{ds}(exp(0 + sX))|_{s=0} \underset{(2)}{=} X$.
Equality $(2)$ I understand. Question 1: Where does $(1)$ come from?
2.
$\sigma: t: \mapsto tX$ is a curve in $\frak{g}$. It has $X$ as a tangent vector at $t = 0$ (Question 2: why is that the tangent vector at $t = 0$? How do I get that $d\sigma(\frac{d}{dr}|_0) = X$?)
Next $t \mapsto exp(tX)$ is a curve in $G$, which has $X_e$ as a tangent vector at $t = 0$ (this I get, it is by definition of the map $exp$).
Question 3: How does this show the statement?
Thanks for any help, I will accept an answer that allows me to understand all three questions, since I see them as crucial to my understanding of the subject. Also please try to be as rigorous as possible, otherwise I have trouble following the (very confusing )notation of differentiable manifolds.