I'm trying to prove the formula for the size of a conjugacy class in $S_n$. here is my try,
Suppose the permutation whose conjugacy class size is to be found has a number of $k_i$ cycles of lengths $m_i$ where $i$ is between one and some integer $s$ in its cycle decomposition.My idea is to fill in the places of the cycles one by one in a manner that guarantees that every integer appear only once.To that end, I find all possible ways to form sets of lengths $m_i$ from the original set of $n$ integers, and the number of these ways is (taking into account that numbers in a cycle may change order and therefore change the permutation) $$ \frac{n!}{\left(n-m_i\right)!\ m_i}$$ and once the first place is filled I have to ensure that the second cycle has completely different numbers so the number of $m_i$ cycles that may be put in the second place and that have different numbers is $$\frac{\left(n-m_i\right)!}{\left(n-2m_i\right)!\ m_i}$$ and so I proceed in this manner until all the places are filled
once I find all possible ways to fill in every place the problem is equivalent to finding the number of possible ways to choose one element from each one of a certain number of sets (that are disjoint) and the number of ways is the product of possible choices . and skipping a lot of computation I find the final answer to be $$\frac{n!}{\prod_{i=1}^s\left(m_i^{k_i}\right)}$$ which is wrong
Most explanations on the web say that we must divide by $k_i!$ because the order in which the cycles are present doesn't matter but I think I've taken that into account the way I did it and still how does that imply that we must divide by the product of $k_i$ factorials? this is a big skip that I wouldn't do if I didn't have a systematic way to justify doing it. However, I'm probably wrong
please be as detailed as possible in your answer because I looked for explanations on the web but they all skip many details and I don't seem to be able to justify a lot of these skips