I was shown the following calculation. There is clearly something wrong but I can not see the mistake. Could someone point out the wrong step or something?
$$ \int \frac{1}{x} dx = \int 1 \cdot \frac{1}{x} dx$$
Let's say $ u = \frac{1}{x}$ and $ dv = 1\ dx$.
So $ du = -\frac{1}{x^2} \ dx$ and $ v = x$.
Putting that into per partes formula:
$$ \int \frac{1}{x} dx = \int 1 \cdot \frac{1}{x} dx= x \cdot \frac{1}{x} - \int x \cdot (-\frac{1}{x^2})dx = 1 + \int \frac{1}{x} dx$$
So we can substract $\int \frac{1}{x}dx$ from both sides which then gives us
$$0 = 1$$
