Let $x \in \mathbb{Z}$ Show that if $N\mid M$ then $(x\pmod M)\pmod N = x \pmod N$
My proof: Assume $x \in \mathbb{Z}$ is arbitrary. Then define $x\pmod M =r \iff x \equiv r\pmod M$ where $0\leq r < M$. Since $N\mid M$, it follows that $x \equiv r \pmod N$. But now I need to show that $0 \leq r <N$ in order to conclude that $x\pmod N=r (mod N) $ or am I mistaken?? How do I complete the proof? Is there an easier way to approach this?