I have a proof that shows $m | xn \implies \frac{m}{(m,n)} | x$ which leans heavily on prime factorizations. Is there a more straightforward proof?
Edit
With this question, I was looking for a proof that didn't involve Euclid's lemma (which is almost immediately equivalent to what is to be proved) or prime factorization. I think this question is worth keeping up if only for the answer below which establishes the result using Bezout's identity. None of the answers in the other post approach it this way.