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I need help on how to prove that this equation $x^2+1\equiv 0\mod {p}$ ;where p is a prime number, admits only two solutions if $p\equiv 1\pmod{4}$?

Kamal
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1 Answers1

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Recall that for every $a\neq0\pmod p$, there is a $b=1/a$ for which $ab=1\pmod p$.
Group the numbers from $2$ to $p-2$ into quartets $\{a,-a,1/a,-1/a\}$.
There are $p-3$ numbers involved, so two numbers must be left over. That is because two of the four numbers are the same. You can't have $a=-a$ since $a\ne0$, and you can't have $a=1/a$ since $a$ is neither $1$ nor $p-1$, so you must have $a=-1/a$, or $a^2+1=0$.

Empy2
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