I have intuition of this statement but I don't have logical proof. How do we prove such statements in functions??
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What definition of "same cardinality" are you working with? – Lee Mosher Jul 06 '19 at 13:05
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@LeeMosher For finite sets, it shouldn't matter as each (appropriate) definition could be shown to be equivalent to each other. You should safely be able to assume that he means there is some $n\in\Bbb N$ such that both $A$ and $B$ have exactly $n$ distinct elements in each. – JMoravitz Jul 06 '19 at 13:07
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Yes, one could write an answer with any given appropriate definition, but I dislike making such assumptions on an elementary level, I always like to know what the OP has in mind. It's mostly a moot point given the duplicate, but a smart questioner might have reason to question the answers in the linked duplicate. – Lee Mosher Jul 06 '19 at 13:42