I struggle with solving this with L'Hospital technique:
$$\lim_{x\to0} \frac{ax-\arctan(ax)}{bx-\arctan(bx)} \tag{1}$$
It should be:
$$\lim_{x\to0} \dfrac{a-\dfrac{a}{a^2x^2+1}}{b-\dfrac{b}{b^2x^2+1}} \tag{2}$$
I end up with:
$$\frac{a-a/1}{b-b/1} \tag{3}$$
Which is $0/0$.
Just the same as if I didn't use l'Hospital method.
Same if "tan" is used instead of "arctan".
Yet, it seems it is solvable.
Any clue in order to get me on the right path?
Thanks.