I thought about Stirling equation for the solution but I couldn't get the answer.
How i need to approach in order to solve that?
Asked
Active
Viewed 48 times
0
-
What about Induction ? – The Demonix _ Hermit Nov 25 '19 at 12:12
-
Closely related: Prove that $n \ln(n) - n ≤ \ln(n!)$ without Stirling. – Toby Mak Nov 25 '19 at 12:17
-
@TobyMak: Actually the answer to that question gives this result, because (unless I am mistaken) $n \log n - n + 1 = \int_1^n ; ; \log x ; ; dx$ – Martin R Nov 25 '19 at 12:20
-
This is clearly a duplicate of another question on this site. Thanks for finding it Martin. – Toby Mak Nov 25 '19 at 12:25
-
1@TobyMak: Easy with Approach0 ! – Martin R Nov 25 '19 at 12:29