I was reviewing my Topology notes today and came across the proof that "if $(X,\tau)$ is first countable and $A\subset X$ is sequentially closed, then it is closed". I will do a brief recap of (our) proof:
Let $x\in \overline{A}$ and open $U_1\supset U_2\supset \dots$ be a nested local base at $x$. Then $U_n\cap A\neq \emptyset $ for all $n$. So $\textbf{choose}$ $x_n\in U_n\cap A$. Define $f: \mathbb{N}\cup \{\infty\}\to X$ as $f(n)=x_n$ and $f(\infty)=x$. To show $f$ is continuous, let $U\subset X$ be open. If $x\not\in U$, then $f^{-1}(U)\subset\mathbb{N}$ is open and if $x\in U$, then there exists $N$ such that $U_n\subset U$ and therefore, $f^{-1}(U)\supset\{N,N+1, \dots\}$ so it is open in this case as well. We conclude that $x_n\to x$ and thus that $x\in A$.
Now we very clearly invoke (at least a weak version of) the axiom of choice here. As indicated in the title, I am wondering if this result still is true without this assumption?