The question: Does $\lim_{x \to x_0} f(x)$ ($\infty$ allowed for $x_0$) exist in case:
- For any interval containing $x_0$ there are $x$ where $f(x)$ defined (besides $x_0$)
- For any interval containing $x_0$ there are $x$ where $f(x)$ is not defined. (Besides $x_0$)
- Limit exists in a sense of $x$ approaching $x_0$ in domain of $f$
This question sounds very simple, but I found it caused so many argues in the community, it just confused me who is right, who is wrong. I encourage to check those links below prior to answering.
Two questions in this site share the same pattern ($f(x)$ not defined everywhere), yet accepted and most upvoted answers given by very high-rated OPs are completely opposite (limit exists, limit doesn’t exist)
What is $\lim_{x \to 0}\frac{\sin(\frac 1x)}{\sin (\frac 1 x)}$ ? Does it exist? Approved answer: limit exists
Find $\lim_{x \to \infty} (\frac{1}{e} - \frac{x}{x+1})^{x}$ Approved answer :limit doesn’t exist! (ironically there is "limit exisits" answer that is downvoted)
One of the OPs refers to “Rudin’s Principles of Mathematical Analysis”:
$$(\lim_{ \to \infty} f(x) = L) ⟺ (∀>0∃:∀∈>⟹|()−|<)$$ where $D$ is the domain of $f(x)$
That explicitly mentions domain. I wonder if Rudin is wrong in a sense that he gives slightly different definition than others?! (Forgive me questioning Rudin’s authority!)