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How does one sum the series $$ S = a -\frac{2}{3}a^{3} + \frac{2 \cdot 4}{3 \cdot 5} a^{5} - \frac{ 2 \cdot 4 \cdot 6}{ 3 \cdot 5 \cdot 7}a^{7} + \cdots $$

This was asked to me by a high school student, and I am embarrassed that I couldn't solve it. Can anyone give me a hint?!

VividD
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3 Answers3

20

HINT $\quad \:\;\;\rm (a^2+1) \: S' = 1 - a \: S \;\:$ by transmuting the coefficient recurrence to a differential equation.

$\rm\;\Rightarrow\; 1 = (a^2+1) \: S' + a \: S \; = \; f \: (f \; S)' \;\;$ for $\rm\;\; f = (a^2+1)^{1/2}$

$\rm\displaystyle\;\Rightarrow\; S = f^{-1} \int \; f^{-1} = \frac{\sinh^{-1}(a)}{(a^2+1)^{1/2}}$

Bill Dubuque
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11

You can use the formula

$\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}{\sin^{2k+1}(x) dx} = \frac{2 \cdot 4 \cdot 6 \cdots 2k}{3\cdot 5 \cdots (2k+1)}$

This is called Wallis's product.

So we have $\displaystyle S(a) = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} (-1)^k a^{2k+1} \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}{\sin^{2k+1}(x) dx}$

Interchanging the sum and the integral

$\displaystyle S(a) = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}{\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}{(-1)^{k}(a\sin x)^{2k+1}} dx}$

The sum inside the integral is a geometric series of the form

$\displaystyle x - x^3 + x^5 - \cdots = x(1 - x^2 + x^4 - \cdots) = \frac{x}{1+x^2}$

Hence,

$\displaystyle S(a) = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}{\frac{a\sin x}{1 + (a\sin x)^2}}dx$

Now substitute $\displaystyle t = a \cos x$

The integral becomes

$\displaystyle \int_{0}^{a}{\frac{1}{1+a^2 - t^2}}dt = \frac{1}{2\sqrt{a^2+1}}\ln \left(\frac{\sqrt{a^2+1}+a}{\sqrt{a^2+1}-a} \right)$

Now $\displaystyle \ln \left(\frac{\sqrt{a^2+1}+a}{\sqrt{a^2+1}-a}\right) = \ln \left(\frac{\left(\sqrt{a^2+1}+a \right)^2}{\left(\sqrt{a^2+1}-a \right)\left(\sqrt{a^2+1}+a \right)}\right) = 2\ln \left(\sqrt{a^2+1}+a \right)$

So

$\displaystyle S(a) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{a^2+1}}\ln \left(\sqrt{a^2+1}+a \right) = \frac{\sinh^{-1}(a)}{\sqrt{a^2+1}}$

Pedro
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Aryabhata
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  • You add \displaystyle to the beginning of the TeX, and it's Wallis's product (at least the infinite version). – Qiaochu Yuan Aug 28 '10 at 03:15
  • Good thing you reminded Moron: The products appearing in the numerators and denominators are the "double factorials". – J. M. ain't a mathematician Aug 28 '10 at 03:18
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    @Qiaochu: Thanks for the tip about \displaystyle. About the product, the formula is exact (we don't need any infinite version) and is also called Wallis's product (at least I remember reading it that way). – Aryabhata Aug 28 '10 at 04:01
  • Hey is there any book which I could refer for getting more used to this type of summation. –  May 16 '11 at 15:46
  • @Chandru: I am not sure. I guess most real analysis books should have stuff like this. – Aryabhata May 16 '11 at 17:19
  • @Chandrasekhar: Sorry, I prefer to stay anonymous. Can't you just post the question here? – Aryabhata Feb 06 '12 at 19:57
  • @Aryabhata: I can't do that. It's because, the problems a hard one and these guys will simply ask motivation and things like that, for which I am completely clueless. Anyway ok. –  Feb 06 '12 at 20:00
  • @Chandrasekhar: I don't think that should be a problem. You must have had some idea which you can post. For motivation, just reveal the source. – Aryabhata Feb 06 '12 at 20:04
  • @Aryabhata: Well, then I shall say here itself: The question is this: $ 1 - \frac{1}{7} + \frac{1}{9} - \frac{1}{15} + \frac{1}{17} + \cdots \ \textrm{ad inf} = \frac{\pi}{8}\cdot\bigl(1+\sqrt{2}\bigr)$ –  Feb 06 '12 at 20:15
  • @Chandrasekhar: Seems like you should be able to use this: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Digamma_function – Aryabhata Feb 06 '12 at 20:24
  • @Aryabhata: Source is "Integral Calculus for beginners" Joseph Edwards. Suna hai kya ye book. –  Feb 06 '12 at 20:25
  • @Chandrasekhar: Nope, nahin suna. Then there is probably an easier solution :-) – Aryabhata Feb 06 '12 at 20:25
  • @Aryabhata: The author doesn't mention all this. He uses Gamma function, but not digamma. So i guess since he hasn't used it, it's premature of him to ask a problem like that. And that is a high-school book –  Feb 06 '12 at 20:30
  • @Aryabhata: This should work i think: $\int_{0}^{1}(1-x^{6})\cdot (1+x^{8}+x^{16} + \cdots \ \text{ad inf}) \ dx = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{(1-x^{6})}{1-x^{8}} \ dx$ is the required sum. –  Feb 13 '12 at 18:11
  • @Chandrasekhar: Well done, looks like it will. – Aryabhata Feb 13 '12 at 19:14
  • @Aryabhata: I would like to practise these type of problems more. Could you suggest any problem book –  Feb 13 '12 at 19:42
  • @Chandrasekhar: I thought you already had one. Sorry, I don't know of any such problem books. – Aryabhata Feb 13 '12 at 19:44
  • @Aryabhata: Oh, that book contains say 10 or 15 problems thats all –  Feb 13 '12 at 19:57
3

Making my comments more explicit:

Your sum of interest is

$\sum_{j=0}^\infty {(-1)^j \frac{(2j)!!}{(2j+1)!!} a^{2j+1}}$

where $(2j)!!=2\cdot 4\cdot 6\cdots (2j)$ and $(2j+1)!!=3\cdot 5\cdot 7\cdots (2j+1)$.

To simplify things a bit, we rearrange the series a bit to

$a\sum_{j=0}^\infty {\frac{(2j)!!}{(2j+1)!!}\left(-a^2\right)^j}$

The double factorials can be also expressed as

$(2j)!!=2^j j!=2^j (1)_j$

and

$(2j+1)!!=2^j \left(\frac32\right)_j$

where $(a)_j$ is a Pochhammer symbol.

Substitute both expressions into the series, and then note that the series now looks like a hypergeometric series. Now you can employ the formula here.