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Let $S,T$ be self-adjoint bounded operators on a complex Hilbert space. In this post, it is shown that $\sigma(ST)\subset\mathbb{R}$. The answerer uses that $\sigma(ST)\cup\{0\}=\sigma(TS)\cup\{0\}$ and that $\sigma(U)=\sigma(U^{*})^{*}$ for any operator $U$. I know that these results are indeed true. But how does he use these results to conclude that $\sigma(ST)\subset\mathbb{R}$?

If I play around with his arguments, I find that $$\sigma(ST)\cup\{0\}=\sigma(TS)\cup\{0\}=\sigma((TS)^{*})^{*}\cup\{0\}=\sigma(S^{*}T^{*})^{*}\cup\{0\}=\sigma(ST)^{*}\cup\{0\}.$$

But, for example, $\mathbb{C}^{*}=\mathbb{C}$ and of course $\mathbb{C}\not\subset\mathbb{R}$.

Aweygan
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Calculix
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1 Answers1

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Personally, I cannot make sense of that answer. More importantly, the assertion is not true if we only require $S,T$ to be selfadjoint. Consider $$ S=\begin{bmatrix} 1&0\\0&-1\end{bmatrix},\ \ \ \ T=\begin{bmatrix} 0&1\\1&0\end{bmatrix}. $$ Then $\sigma(ST)=\{i,-i\}$.

If you require, say $S\geq0$, then the assertion does work because $$ \sigma(ST)\cup\{0\}=\sigma(S^{1/2}TS^{1/2})\cup\{0\}\subset\mathbb R. $$

Martin Argerami
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