Where can I start to solve this differential equation:
$(2x/y-y/(x^2+y^2))dx+(x/(x^2+y^2)-x^2/y^2)dy=0$ .
Differential Equation Image
My Solution
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4 Answers
$$ \dfrac {2xdx}y-\dfrac {x^2}{y^2}dy +{xdy-ydx\over x^2+y^2}=0$$ The DE becomes: $$ \dfrac {2xdx}y-\dfrac {x^2}{y^2}dy +d \left(\arctan \left ( \dfrac y x \right) \right)=0$$
$$ \dfrac {dx^2}y+x^2d(\dfrac 1 y)+d \left(\arctan \left ( \dfrac y x \right) \right)=0$$ $$ d(\dfrac {x^2}y)+d \left(\arctan \left ( \dfrac y x \right) \right)=0$$ Integrate: $$ \dfrac {x^2}y+ \arctan \left ( \dfrac y x \right) =C$$
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1Thank you but you have a mistake ı think.( xdy-ydx) is true one. – Semih Ataman Apr 25 '20 at 01:39
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Sir, I ve found answer as: x^(2)/y+arctan(y/x)-arctan(x/y)=c – Semih Ataman Apr 25 '20 at 02:15
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Could you look up my solution? – Semih Ataman Apr 25 '20 at 02:29
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I have posted it as solution now I will post in question part too. – Semih Ataman Apr 25 '20 at 02:41
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In which part I am wrong? – Semih Ataman Apr 25 '20 at 02:42
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Thanks a lot :) – Semih Ataman Apr 25 '20 at 02:49
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Yoiu're welcome @SemihAtaman – user577215664 Apr 25 '20 at 02:49
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Sir my solution is true. Because we are treating y as a constant where we have dx and we are treating x as a constant where we have dy, because of these we have c(x) and c(y) in my solution that they defines functions in x and in y. And also, I've watched a lot of videos about that topic. Here is one of them in the link below: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=lnz5KcBMyo0&t=514s – Semih Ataman Apr 25 '20 at 13:43
Hint
By defining $u=\tan^{-1} {x\over y}$ and $w={x^2\over y}$ we obtain $$du={dx\over y(1+{x^2\over y^2})}-{dy\over x(1+{y^2\over x^2})}={ydx-xdy\over x^2+y^2}$$ $$ dw={2xdx\over y}-{x^2dy\over y^2} $$
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$$\left(\dfrac {2x}y-\dfrac y{(x^2+y^2)}\right)dx+\left(\dfrac x{(x^2+y^2)}-\dfrac {x^2}{y^2}\right)dy=0$$ You can solve it with exactness. Since we have $$Mdx+Ndy=0$$ $$\partial_yM=\partial_xN$$ $$I=\int \dfrac {2x}y-\dfrac y{(x^2+y^2)}dx$$ $$I= \dfrac {x^2}y-\dfrac {dx/y}{((x/y)^2+1)}$$ $$I= \dfrac {x^2}y-\arctan (x/y)+C(y)$$ $$I= \dfrac {x^2}y+\arctan \left(\dfrac yx \right)+C_2(y)$$
On the other part we have: $$I= \int \dfrac x{(x^2+y^2)}-\dfrac {x^2}{y^2}dy$$ $$I=\arctan \left(\dfrac yx \right)+\dfrac {x^2}{y}+C(x)$$ So we have : $$C(x)=C_2(y) \implies C(x)=C$$ We can deduce the final answer as: $$\boxed {\arctan \left(\dfrac yx \right)+\dfrac {x^2}{y}=C}$$
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Thank you sir. I am so grateful. You gave a lot of effort for this question. Which property of arctan satisfies arctan(y/x)=-arctan(x/y) – Semih Ataman Apr 25 '20 at 14:45
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You're welcome if that helps thats good. In fact you have $\arctan (y/x)+\arctan(x/y)=\frac {\pi}2$ @SemihAtaman Take a look here https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1430520/proving-that-arctanx-arctan1-x-pm-pi-2-could-this-line-of-reasoning-p/2147689 – user577215664 Apr 25 '20 at 14:47