Let $f_{k+1}(x)=f_{k}(\cos x)$ and $f_{1}(x)=\cos x$ then $\lim_{k\to\infty}f_{k}(x)=0.73905\cdots$
I was just piddling around with the calculator one day. I don't know what happened but I just happened to take the cosine of a single number (in radians) repeatedly. It converged to a single value $0.739085133\dots$ It converged to this same thing for every number I tried. Like for example, the cosine of the cosine of the cosine of the cosine$\dots$ of any arbitrary value is equal to that.
Please tell me if I have made a new observation, or if it's just a false alarm.
