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Is there a nice elementary way to prove there is infinite prime numbers of form $5n+3$ (also for $5n+2$) with $n\in \mathbb{N}$?

I know how to do it for primes of form $pn+1$ for any prime $p\geq 3$ but not in this case.

User2020201
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    By a theorem of Murty, if there is an elementary way, it must be significantly different from Euclid's argument. There is a "Euclidean polynomial" for $a \bmod m$ if (Schur, 1912), and only if (Murty, 1988) $a^2 \equiv 1 \pmod{m}$. – Daniel Fischer Apr 28 '20 at 18:14
  • Do you know any such case of non Euclidian argument? @DanielFischer – User2020201 Apr 28 '20 at 19:43
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    Basically … Dirichlet found a nice non-Euclidean argument ;) – Daniel Fischer Apr 28 '20 at 19:47
  • @DanielFischer then according to the theorem you stated, there must exist a so-called elementary "Euclidean polynomial" approach for both cases, right? We have $5^2 \equiv 1 \pmod 3$ and $5^2 \equiv 1 \pmod 2$. – Hello Apr 29 '20 at 08:24
  • @ONGSEEHAI No, $5$ is $m$, and $2$ or $3$ are $a$. $2^2 \equiv 3^2 \equiv 4 \pmod{5}$, so there is no "Euclidean polynomial" way for these cases. – Daniel Fischer Apr 29 '20 at 09:29
  • This was originally posted on [mathoverflow.net], but so far the question only got some comments there: How to prove there is infinite prime numbers of form $5n+3$ without Dirichlet theorem? (Among other things, one comment recommended this site as a better option.) – Martin Sleziak Apr 29 '20 at 12:05
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    This is presumably cheating, but the hardest part of Dirichlet's proof is the nonvanishing of $L(1, \chi)$ and the part that I think would take the longest to teach to someone with just an elementary number theory background is the definition of characters and their orthogonality. For any fixed modulus, both can be checked by direct computation, thus giving a proof of Dirichlet for that modulus which I think would fit into a 50 minute lecture. – David E Speyer Apr 29 '20 at 12:59
  • @DavidESpeyer So you think this (special case) is accessible to advanced highschool students? – User2020201 Apr 29 '20 at 13:16
  • See https://math.stackexchange.com/a/3346456/589 – lhf Apr 29 '20 at 13:29
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    It's easy to prove there are infinitely long sequences of primes where each of the elements is $5k+2$ or $5k+3$, which implies there must be infinitely many at least of one of $5k+2$ or $5k+3$. But to prove both cases individually seems much harder. – Sil Apr 29 '20 at 13:41
  • Can you show us that solution please? @Sil – User2020201 Apr 29 '20 at 13:45
  • What sort of high school students are we talking about? If they don't have calculus, no -- way too many infinite sums and limits. If they have high school calc but not a rigorous course, but they do have experience with proofs and elementary number theory, I would suggest handwaving all rearrangements of sums but think they could do the rest. I am trying to decide whether I think you can actually do the analysis carefully and get it to the type of kids you find at PROMYS/MOP/etc. – David E Speyer Apr 29 '20 at 13:47
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    @User2020201, any product of primes congruent to $1$ or $4$ mod $5$ will be congruent to $1$ or $4$, so multiply a bunch of primes congruent to $2$ or $3$ together, go to the next number congruent to $2$ or $3$, and there you go. – Barry Cipra Apr 29 '20 at 13:51
  • @User2020201 how do u expect a better answer than the one with currently 4 votes?? – mathworker21 May 08 '20 at 17:25
  • But it is not an answer. @mathworker21 – User2020201 May 08 '20 at 17:26
  • @User2020201 ah, my bad. – mathworker21 May 08 '20 at 17:26
  • As Sil mentions above (and answered below), it is easy to prove that are infinitely many primes of the form $,5k\pm 2,,$ which is a special case of this answer, with $,S = 5\Bbb N \pm 1,\ c(n) = 5n+2\ \ $ – Bill Dubuque Nov 29 '23 at 19:35

2 Answers2

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Here is an elementary proof of a partial result described in comments - there are infinitely many primes of form $5k+2$ or $5k+3$.

For the sake of contradiction, we assume there are only finitely many primes $p_1,p_2,\dots,p_n$ of form $5k+2$ or $5k+3$ with $k \geq 0$. Then consider $$N=5\cdot p_2\cdots p_n+2.$$

($p_1=2$ is not included in the product). Then $N$ is not divisible by any of $2,3$ or $5$. Now if all factors of $N$ were of form $5k+1$ or $5k+4$, then $N$ would be of this form too, impossible. So there is a prime $q \mid N$ such that $q=5k+2$ or $q=5k+3$, but $q \neq 2,3$, and $q$ cannot be any of $p_i$, a contradiction.

This implies that primes of at least one of the two forms occur infinitely often.

Sil
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$\def\CC{\mathbb{C}}\def\ZZ{\mathbb{Z}}\def\RR{\mathbb{R}}$Okay, let's write out the Dirichlet proof for $N=5$ stripped down to as little analysis as I can. Define four periodic functions $\chi_r(n)$ by the following table: $$\begin{array}{|c|cccc|} \hline n \bmod 5= & 0&1&2&3&4 \\ \hline \chi_0(n)= &0&1&1&1&1 \\ \chi_1(n)= &0&1&i&-i&-1 \\ \chi_2(n)= &0&1&-1&-1&1 \\ \chi_3(n)= &0&1&-i&i&-1 \\ \hline \end{array}$$ Define $L(s, \chi_r) := \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \tfrac{\chi_r(n)}{n^s}$ for $s>1$.

We now consider the behavior of the $L(s, \chi_r)$ as $s \to 1^+$. When $r=0$, we have $$L(s, \chi_0) = \sum_{m=0}^{\infty} \left( \tfrac{1}{(5m+1)^s} + \tfrac{1}{(5m+2)^s} + \tfrac{1}{(5m+3)^s} + \tfrac{1}{(5m+4)^s} \right) > \sum_{m=0}^{\infty} \frac{4}{5} \int_{5m+1}^{5m+6} \frac{dx}{x^s} = \frac{4/5}{s-1}.$$ Thus, $\lim_{s \to 1^+} L(\chi_0, s) = \infty$.

On the other hand, I claim that $\lim_{s \to 1^+} L(\chi_r, s)$ is a finite, nonzero, complex number for $r=1$, $2$, $3$. Indeed, we have $$\mathrm{Re}\ L(s, \chi_{1 \ \mbox{or} \ 3}) = \sum_{m=0}^{\infty} \left( \tfrac{1}{(5m+1)^s} - \tfrac{1}{(5m+4)^s} \right) \geq \sum_{m=0}^{\infty} \left( \tfrac{1}{5m+1} - \tfrac{1}{5m+4} \right)>0 \ \mbox{and}$$ $$L(s, \chi_2) = \sum_{m=0}^{\infty} \left( \tfrac{1}{(5m+1)^s} - \tfrac{1}{(5m+2)^s} - \tfrac{1}{(5m+3)^s} +\tfrac{1}{(5m+4)^s} \right)>\sum_{m=0}^{\infty} \left( \tfrac{1}{5m+1} - \tfrac{1}{5m+2} - \tfrac{1}{5m+3} +\tfrac{1}{5m+4} \right)>0.$$

Therfore, as $s \to 1^+$, the quantity $\log L(s, \chi_0)$ goes to $\infty$, but $\log L(s, \chi_r)$ stays bounded for $r=1$, $2$, $3$.

Now, note that each of the $\chi_r$ is multiplicative, so we can factor $$L(s, \chi_r) = \prod_p \left( 1+ \frac{\chi_r(p)}{p^s} + \frac{\chi_r(p)^2}{p^{2s}} + \cdots \right) = \prod_p (1-\chi_r(p) p^{-s})^{-1}.$$ Taking logs of both sides, we have $$\log L(s, \chi_r) = \sum_p \log (1-\chi_r(p) p^{-s})^{-1} = \sum_p \sum_{j=1}^{\infty} \frac{\chi_r(p)^j}{j p^{js}}.$$ The last sum is absolutely convergent for $s>1$, so we may reorder it however we like. The contribution of the terms with $j \geq 2$ is bounded as $s \to 1^+$. We deduce that, as $s \to 1^+$, the sum $\sum_p \tfrac{\chi_0(p)}{p^s}$ goes to $\infty$, whereas the sums $\sum_p \tfrac{\chi_r(p)}{p^s}$ for $r=1$, $2$, $3$ stay bounded.

Now, let $a$ and $b$ be integers with $a \not\equiv 0 \bmod 5$. We can check by hand that $$\frac{1}{4} \sum_{r=0}^3 \chi_r(a)^{-1} \chi_r(b) = \begin{cases} 1 & a \equiv b \bmod 5 \\ 0 & a \not \equiv b \bmod 5 \end{cases}.$$ Thus, $$\frac{1}{4} \sum_{r=0}^{3} \chi_r(a)^{-1} \sum_p \tfrac{\chi_r(p)}{p^s} = \sum_{p \equiv a \bmod 5} \frac{1}{p^s}.$$

Combining this with the results above, we see that $$ \sum_{p \equiv a \bmod 5} \frac{1}{p^s} \to \infty \ \mbox{as} \ s \to 1^+.$$


To generalize this argument to other $N$, you need to
  • Construct $\phi(N)$ many multiplicative functions $\chi_r : \ZZ \to \CC$ which are periodic mod $N$ and $0$ on the residue classes not relatively prime to $N$.

  • Check the identity $\tfrac{1}{\phi(N)} \sum_r \chi_r(a)^{-1} \chi_r(b) = 1$.

  • Show that $L(1, \chi_r) \neq 0$.

Once again, for any particular $N$, this is a finite computation.

Finally, a suggestion. If I were presenting this argument to the students, I would just use $N=4$ and the table $$\begin{array}{|c|cccc|} \hline n \bmod 4 = & 0& 1& 2 & 3 \\ \hline \chi_0(n) = & 0&1&0&1 \\ \chi_1(n) = & 0&1&0&-1 \\ \hline \end{array}.$$ Then all the computations are smaller, and the verification that $L(1, \chi_1) \neq 0$ is the familiar sum $$\frac{1}{1} - \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{5} - \frac{1}{7} + \cdots = \frac{\pi}{4}.$$ Then you could display the character tables for other values of $N$ at the end of the talk and challenge them to fill in the details.

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    Why is this true $$\sum_{m=0}^{\infty} \left(\tfrac{1}{(5m+1)^s} - \tfrac{1}{(5m+4)^s} \right) \geq \sum_{m=0}^{\infty} \left( \tfrac{1}{5m+1} - \tfrac{1}{5m+4} \right)$$ $s>1$ – User2020201 Apr 29 '20 at 20:15