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I'm trying to understand Euclidean geometry the hard way. I don't want to start with analytical geometry, building on coordinates and vector spaces, nor on the Euclidean approach of synthetic geometry which, implicitly, builds on rigid motions which need length and rotation to be predefined.

I tried this:

Let $(\mathbb P, \mathbb L)$ be a (lightwigth, skipping the $\mathbb I$) incidence structure with $\mathbb L \subset \frak{P}(\mathbb P)$ with the following properties:

$\forall_{a,b\in \mathbb L}\;\;a\cap b=\emptyset \;\lor\; \exists_{x\in\mathbb P}\,a\cap b=\{x\} \;\lor\; a\cap b=a$

and

$\forall_{a,b\in \mathbb L}\;\;a\subset b\implies a=b$.

Thus $\mathbb L$ mimics lines in the Euclidean plane, but with very few assumptions: lines intersect in exactly one point, not at all or in one of the lines, and, lines are maximal in the sense that no line is proper part of another line.

Then mimic the reflection of points by a line:

Define a family of functions $\mu_a: \mathbb P\to \mathbb P\;\;\forall a\in \mathbb L$ with the following properties:

$\forall_{x\in \mathbb P}\;\;\mu_a(x)=x\iff x\in a$ (The points on the line are the only fixpoints)

$\forall_{b \in\mathbb L}\;\;\mu_a(b)\in\mathbb L$ (The image of a line is again a line)

$\forall_{b \in\mathbb L}\;\;\mu_a(\mu_a(b))=b$ (Applying a reflection twice maps lines onto themselves)

In the Euclidean plane, two different lines are perpendicular if a reflection by $a$ maps $b$ onto itself.

Then for $a\neq b \in\mathbb L$ define $a \perp b \iff \mu_a(b)=b$.

I fail either to show that $a\perp b\implies b\perp a$ or to find a counterexample.

  • You have to explain what $\mu_a$ has been invented for. You have to give hints about the "under the hood" aspects, otherwise people will not adhere to your axiomatisation choices. For example, do you intend to modelize lines in 2D or 3D ? Besides, believe me if I say that you can spend a lot of time without profit by trying to construct axiomatic systems : leave it to professional mathematicians. – Jean Marie May 05 '20 at 15:24

1 Answers1

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It seems that this is a counterexample:

$$\mathbb{P}=\{1,2,3,4,5,6\}$$ $$a=\{1,2\},b=\{3,4\},c=\{5,6\}$$ $$\mathbb{L}=\{a,b,c\}$$

$$\begin{array}{c|c|c|c|c|c|} x&1&2&3&4&5&6\\\mu_a(x)&1&2&4&3&6&5\\\mu_b(x)&5&6&3&4&1&2\\\mu_c(x)&2&1&4&3&5&6\end{array}$$

Here $a\perp b$ and $b\not\perp a$.

Kulisty
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  • Very nice and also a hint what is missing in my definition" of perpendicular lines: in your example, all all lines are parallel (disjoint). – Gyro Gearloose May 07 '20 at 08:36
  • Adding 0 as common point for all lines and a fix point for $\mu_a,\mu_b,\mu_c$ will make the lines non-parallel and $\perp$ still is not reflexive. – Gyro Gearloose May 07 '20 at 09:22