I assume that $H_n(X,\mathbb{Z})$ are finitely generated free ablelian groups. Then from the universal coefficients theorem I have $H^n(X,\mathbb{Z})=Hom(H_n(X,\mathbb{Z})).$
Then, since $H_n(X,\mathbb{Z})$ is just $\mathbb{Z}^m$, we have $Hom(H_n(X,\mathbb{Z}),\mathbb{Z})=H_n(X,\mathbb{Z})$ through dual basis. Thus, taking $Hom$ from both sides, we get $Hom(H^n(X,\mathbb{Z}),\mathbb{Z})=H_n(X,\mathbb{Z})$. Is it a legit argument?
However, if I start with no information on homologies, and all information on cohomologies (for example, let's assume that $\forall n~$ $H^n(X,\mathbb{Z})$ is finitely generated free abelian group), can I somehow deduce what $H_n(X,\mathbb{Z})$ looks like?