I have taken the value of $\cos 20^o$ to be $x$.
Now,
$$\cos 20^o\cos 40^o\cos 60^o\cos 80^o = \dfrac{\cos 20^o}{2}\cos(40^o)\cos(80^o)$$
$$=\dfrac{x}{2}\Bigg( \dfrac{\cos(40^o + 80^o) + \cos(40^o - 80^o)}{2} \Bigg)$$
$$=\dfrac{x}{2}\Bigg( \dfrac{\dfrac{-1}{\text{ }2} + \cos 40^o}{2} \Bigg) = \dfrac{x}{4}\Bigg( \dfrac{-1}{\text{ }2}+2x^2-1 \Bigg)$$
$$=\dfrac{x}{8}(4x^2-3) = \dfrac{4x^3-3x}{8}$$
Can this even be continued (I mean to ask if this method will lead me any further)? If yes, how do I continue it?
Thanks!
PS : Please don't provide alternatives, I want to try them myself first. This question is only for the sake of asking if this method can be continued and it if can be, then how.