I am quite skeptical about a possible closed form of the antiderivative
$$I=e^{-μ}\int \frac{μ^x}{\Gamma(x+1)}\,dx$$
However, assuming that we should always stay in the range $0 \leq x \leq 1$, we could make some approximations representing $\Gamma(x+1)$ as a more or less constrained polynomial in $x$
$$\Gamma(x+1) \sim \sum_{n=0}^p a_n x^n=a_p \prod_{n=1}^p (x-r_n)$$ Then partial fraction decomposition would lead to
$$I=\frac {e^{-μ}}{a_p} \sum_{n=1}^p b_n\int \frac{\mu^x}{x-r_n}\,dx$$
$$J_n=\int \frac{\mu^x}{x-r_n}\,dx=\mu ^{r_n}\, \log (\mu)\,\text{Ei}\big[x-r_n\big] $$
Trying for $\mu=0.5$ and a few values of $p$ for the integral between $0$ and $1$, the following results were obtained (no constraint for the curve fit)
$$\left(
\begin{array}{cc}
p & \text{approximation} \\
2 & 0.47485397 \\
3 & 0.47487261 \\
4 & 0.47487351 \\
5 & 0.47487387 \\
6 & 0.47487409
\end{array}
\right)$$
while the exact value is $0.47487382$.
Edit
Another possibility is to use
$$\frac{1}{\Gamma(x+1)}=\sum_{n=0}^p \frac{c_n}{n!}\,x^n +O(x^{p+1})$$ where the very first coefficients are (have a look here)
$$\left(
\begin{array}{cc}
0 & 1 \\
1 & \gamma \\
2 & \gamma ^2-\frac{\pi ^2}{6} \\
3 & \gamma ^3-\frac{\gamma \pi ^2}{2}+2 \zeta (3) \\
4 & \gamma ^4-\gamma ^2 \pi ^2+\frac{\pi ^4}{60}+8 \gamma \zeta (3) \\
5 & \gamma ^5-\frac{5 \gamma ^3 \pi ^2}{3}+\frac{\gamma \pi ^4}{12}-\frac{10}{3}
\left(-6 \gamma ^2+\pi ^2\right) \zeta (3)+24 \zeta (5) \\
6 & \gamma ^6-\frac{5 \gamma ^4 \pi ^2}{2}+\frac{\gamma ^2 \pi ^4}{4}-\frac{5 \pi
^6}{168}-20 \gamma \left(-2 \gamma ^2+\pi ^2\right) \zeta (3)+40 \zeta
(3)^2+144 \gamma \zeta (5)
\end{array}
\right)$$
$$K_n=\int \mu^x \,x^n \,dx=-x^{n+1} E_{-n}\big[-x \log (\mu )\big]$$
Using the terms given in the link, the results is $0.47487437$.
Update
Another possibility is based on the fact that$$\frac{1}{\Gamma(x+1)}-1$$ looks like a Gibbs enxcess energy model.
So, let use write
$$\frac{1}{\Gamma(x+1)}=1+x(x-1) \sum_{k=0}^p d_k\, x^k$$ This would make
$$I=e^{-μ}\Big[\frac{\mu ^x}{L} +\sum_{k=0}^p (-1)^k d_k L^{-k}\,\left(\frac{\Gamma (k+3,-x L)}{L^3}+\frac{\Gamma (k+2,-xL
))}{L^2} \right)\Big]$$ where $L=\log(\mu)$.
For $p=3$, we should have
$$d_0=-\gamma\qquad d_1=-\gamma -\frac{\gamma ^2}{2}+\frac{\pi ^2}{12}$$
$$d_2==48+16 \gamma +2 \gamma ^2-\frac{\pi ^2}{3}+\frac{16 (-8+\gamma +2\log
(2))}{\sqrt{\pi }}$$
$$d_3=\frac{384-6 (32+\gamma (10+\gamma )) \sqrt{\pi }+\pi ^{5/2}+96 (2-\gamma -2\log
(2))}{3 \sqrt{\pi }}$$ which reproduce the function and first derivative values at $x=0$, $x=\frac 12$ and $x=1$.
For the test example, the result would be $0.47487809$
Gamma[]in WolframAlpha. Anyway, when $x$ is an integer, the usual way to compute this is integration by parts and with the knowledge that $\Gamma(x) = (x-1)!$. – angryavian Aug 26 '20 at 00:30Unfortunately, I started out with the Poisson Distribution formula and intentionally replaced the factorial denominator, x! with the Gamma function so that I could solve the equation for instances where x >= 0 and continuous.
What would be your recommendation for calculating the area under the curve for Formula 1 where x >= 0?
– the_rubicon Aug 26 '20 at 01:52I have plotted Formula 1 in excel with increments of of x increasing by 0.1 from 0 to 4. I have a fixed μ = 0.5 value. Perhaps I should label this something else? I'm really just using μ as a fixed numerical constant I adjust to get the desired graph shape (increasing shifts y_max right and simultaneously reduces amplitude).
All I want to know is if it's possible to calculate the area under my graph between 0 and any given decimal value of x, say x = 0.7, given a fixed value of 'μ'. And if this is possible, how...
Many thanks in advance, J
– the_rubicon Aug 26 '20 at 06:07