I would argue that the "rare disease" example is indeed a good one because of the base rate fallacy: a tendency of people who are not familiar with Bayes' Theorem to ignore the prior probability that someone has the disease and focus on the sensitivity and specificity of the test. What Bayes' Theorem tells us is how to combine all three sources of information to draw correct inferences. Your question is a very natural one, however, given the unfortunate tendency of introductory probability and statistics texts to avoid thinking carefully about the meaning of the prior probability. This example may help.
Let $S$ be the event that you have Covid, $S^c$ be the event that you do not have Covid, $P$ be the event that you test positive and $N$ be the event that you test negative. If our lab test has specificity $1 - \alpha$ and sensitivity $\beta$, then:
$$\mathbb{Pr}(P|S) = \beta, \quad \mathbb{Pr}(P|S^c)=\alpha$$
If we define $\pi \equiv \mathbb{Pr}(S)$ then $\mathbb{Pr}(S^c) = 1 - \pi$ and by Bayes' Theorem:
$$\mathbb{Pr}(S|P) = \frac{\mathbb{Pr}(P|S)\mathbb{Pr}(S)}{\mathbb{Pr}(P|S)\mathbb{Pr}(S) + \mathbb{Pr}(P|S^c)\mathbb{Pr}(S^c)} = \frac{\beta \pi}{\beta \pi + \alpha(1 - \pi)} = \frac{1}{1 + \displaystyle \frac{\alpha}{\beta} \cdot \frac{(1 - \pi)}{\pi}}$$
From this expression we see that the probability of your having Covid depends on only two quantities: the ratio of false positive to true positives, namely $\alpha / \beta$, and the prior odds that you have Covid, namely $\pi / (1 - \pi)$.
Textbook examples typically give you values for $\alpha, \beta, \pi$ and simply ask you to turn the crank to calculate $\mathbb{Pr}(S|P)$. But a better way of thinking about the preceding formula is as a recipe for updating our initial belief about whether or not you have Covid, $\pi/(1 - \pi)$, after observing a positive test result. This recipe applies regardless of the values of $\pi$, $\alpha$, and $\beta$ although the precise conclusion will vary.
Let's suppose that the characteristics of the test, $\alpha$ and $\beta$ are fixed. For a test with excellent sensitivity and specificity, then perhaps $\alpha / \beta \approx 1/100$. If Covid is rare, you haven't shown any symptoms, and you don't know anyone who has been infected, then perhaps the prior odds that you have Covid are around $1/1000$. But what if you have shown symptoms and know someone who was infected? In this case, perhaps the odds could be even. For a test with $\alpha/\beta \approx 1/100$, the range of prior odds $\pi/(1-\pi) \in [0.001, 1]$ gives $\mathbb{Pr}(S|P) \in [0.09, 0.99]$ approximately.
So what's the answer? The key point here is that it depends on our initial beliefs. These beliefs, in turn, should depend on what I know about you before carrying out the test. Textbook examples tend to tacitly assume an initial position of complete ignorance: if I know nothing about you whatsoever, then it's reasonable to set $\pi$ equal to the base rate of Covid in the population as a whole. If I know that you've shown symptoms, then perhaps I should try to set $\pi$ based on prior information about the share of people with Covid among those with symptoms. But regardless of how I arrive at my choice of $\pi$, through outside information, clinical intuition, or pure speculation, I should always update my beliefs in the same way, using Bayes' Theorem and the test characteristics.