Prove the following closed form:
$$\int_{0}^{1}\left(\frac{x^{2}-1}{x^{2}+1}\right)\ln\left(\operatorname{arctanh}x\right)dx=\ln\pi-\gamma-\left(2-\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\ln2-\pi\ln\left(\frac{\Gamma\left(\frac{3}{4}\right)}{\Gamma\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)}\sqrt{2\pi}\right).$$
I had discovered this while attempting to prove a previous problem when I attempted to integrate both sides of
$$\frac{d}{dx}(x^2-1)\arctan(x)\ln(\operatorname{arctanh}(x)) = 2x\arctan(x)\ln(\operatorname{arctanh}(x))+\left(\frac{x^2-1}{x^2+1}\right)\ln(\operatorname{arctanh}(x))-\frac{\arctan(x)}{\operatorname{arctanh}(x)}.$$
That post was nine months ago and I didn't keep a systematic record of my process. I'm sure I could figure it out if I dug through my old work, but now I'm mostly curious to see how others in the community would attack this.