I'm having a lot of difficulty understanding just what the Nullstellensatz is saying, and how it can be applied to a specific example that I cooked up.
Let $k$ be a field. Suppose that a polynomial $f(x_1, x_2, \ldots, x_n)$ vanishes on the subvariety $V(x_1 - x_2)$ of $\mathbb{A}^n$, by which I mean $f(a_1, a_2, \ldots, a_n) = 0$ for all $a_1, a_2, \ldots, a_n$ in $k$ with $a_1 = a_2$. By the Nullstellensatz, $f \in \sqrt{(x_1 - x_2)} = (x_1 - x_2)$ because the ideal is prime. That means $f$ is divisible by $x_1 - x_2$. So far, so good. (Right?)
Now let $k = \mathbb{F}_p$ and choose $f(x, y) = x^p - y$. By Fermat's Little Theorem, $f(a, a) = 0$ for all $a$ in $\mathbb{F}_p$, which means $f$ vanishes on the diagonal of $\mathbb{A}^2$. The above argument should imply that $x^p - y$ is divisible by $x - y$, but it isn't. What's going on?