My guess is that it diverges because 1/n diverges and sin is bounded between [-1,1]; however, I know that the product of two divergent series may yield a convergent. Any suggestions of going about this?
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This and more similar questions can be found with Approach0 – Martin R Sep 23 '20 at 19:32
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Wolfram says it converges to $ \frac{1}{2} (\pi - 1) $, but I can't immediately see how it gets there – redroid Sep 23 '20 at 19:36