Here is the question I want to answer:
A commutative ring $R$ is local if it has a unique maximal ideal $\mathfrak{m}.$In this case, we say $(R, \mathfrak{m})$ is a local ring. For example, if $R$ is a field, then $(R,(0))$ is a local ring, since the only proper ideal of a field is $(0).$
$(a)$ Let $(R, \mathfrak{m})$ be a local ring. Show that $R^* = R\setminus \mathfrak{m}.$
Hint: The quotient $R/ \mathfrak{m}$ is a field.
Here is a trial which I feel that it is not correct specifically because I did not use the hint:
Let $R$ be a commutative ring and let $(R, \mathfrak{m})$ be a local ring, we want to show that $R^* = R\setminus \mathfrak{m}.$
Let $x \in R\setminus \mathfrak{m}$ s.t. $X \notin R^*.$ Then $\langle x \rangle$ is a non-zero proper ideal which is contained in a maximal ideal different from $M,$ which is a contradiction. Therefore $R^* = R\setminus \mathfrak{m}.$
So could anyone criticize this solution to me and tell me the correct and inaccurate/incorrect statements in it please?
Another trial which I feel like it is not written logically correct(specifically the last paragraph and how all the proof before it proves the required):
Suppose that $R$ is a local ring with maximal ideal $\mathfrak{m}$. Then $R/\mathfrak{m} = \{r + \mathfrak{m} \mid r \in R \}$ and the zero element of $R/\mathfrak{m}$ is $0 + \mathfrak{m} = \mathfrak{m}.$\
We will show that every non-zero element in $R / \mathfrak{m}$ has a multiplicative inverse in $R / \mathfrak{m}$ i.e. $R / \mathfrak{m}$ is a field.
Let $ r + \mathfrak{m} \neq \mathfrak{m}$ be a non-zero element in $R / \mathfrak{m}.$Then $r \notin \mathfrak{m}.$\
Clearly, $rR$ is an ideal of $R$ and $ \mathfrak{m} + rR$ is an ideal of $R$ containing $\mathfrak{m}$ properly.
Then $\mathfrak{m} \subset \mathfrak{m} + rR \subset R$ and since $\mathfrak{m}$ is maximal and $r \notin \mathfrak{m}$ then $\mathfrak{m} \neq \mathfrak{m} + rR $ and $\mathfrak{m} + rR = R.$\
Now, since $1 \in R,$ then $1 = m + rs$ for some $m \in \mathfrak{m}$ and $s \in R.$ So, $1 - rs = m \in \mathfrak{m} $ which means $1 - rs + \mathfrak{m} = \mathfrak{m}.$ Therefore, $$1 + \mathfrak{m} = rs + \mathfrak{m} = (r + \mathfrak{m})(s + \mathfrak{m})$$
Hence, for every $\mathfrak{m} \neq r + \mathfrak{m}$ in $R / \mathfrak{m},$ there exists $ s + \mathfrak{m}$ in $R / \mathfrak{m},$ such that $(r + \mathfrak{m})(s + \mathfrak{m}) = 1 + \mathfrak{m}$ where $1 + \mathfrak{m}$ is the multiplicative identity element of $R / \mathfrak{m}.$ And since $R$ is commutative then $$(r + \mathfrak{m})(s + \mathfrak{m}) = (s + \mathfrak{m})(r + \mathfrak{m}) = 1 + \mathfrak{m}$$
Hence, every non-zero element of $R / \mathfrak{m}$ is a unit and since the zero element of $R / \mathfrak{m}$ is $\mathfrak{m}$ then $R^* = R\setminus \mathfrak{m}.$
In this second proof I do not see if I really proved the required or not, so could anyone help me in proving the required if I did not do that or correct my mistakes if I was doing that?
A trivial question on the second proof, why $rR$ is clearly an ideal? could anyone explains that to me please?
In general, I would appreciate if I saw a smart, elegant, simple and logically correct proof of the required.