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Here is the question I want to answer:

A commutative ring $R$ is local if it has a unique maximal ideal $\mathfrak{m}.$In this case, we say $(R, \mathfrak{m})$ is a local ring. For example, if $R$ is a field, then $(R,(0))$ is a local ring, since the only proper ideal of a field is $(0).$

$(a)$ Let $(R, \mathfrak{m})$ be a local ring. Show that $R^* = R\setminus \mathfrak{m}.$

Hint: The quotient $R/ \mathfrak{m}$ is a field.

Here is a trial which I feel that it is not correct specifically because I did not use the hint:

Let $R$ be a commutative ring and let $(R, \mathfrak{m})$ be a local ring, we want to show that $R^* = R\setminus \mathfrak{m}.$

Let $x \in R\setminus \mathfrak{m}$ s.t. $X \notin R^*.$ Then $\langle x \rangle$ is a non-zero proper ideal which is contained in a maximal ideal different from $M,$ which is a contradiction. Therefore $R^* = R\setminus \mathfrak{m}.$

So could anyone criticize this solution to me and tell me the correct and inaccurate/incorrect statements in it please?

Another trial which I feel like it is not written logically correct(specifically the last paragraph and how all the proof before it proves the required):

Suppose that $R$ is a local ring with maximal ideal $\mathfrak{m}$. Then $R/\mathfrak{m} = \{r + \mathfrak{m} \mid r \in R \}$ and the zero element of $R/\mathfrak{m}$ is $0 + \mathfrak{m} = \mathfrak{m}.$\

We will show that every non-zero element in $R / \mathfrak{m}$ has a multiplicative inverse in $R / \mathfrak{m}$ i.e. $R / \mathfrak{m}$ is a field.

Let $ r + \mathfrak{m} \neq \mathfrak{m}$ be a non-zero element in $R / \mathfrak{m}.$Then $r \notin \mathfrak{m}.$\

Clearly, $rR$ is an ideal of $R$ and $ \mathfrak{m} + rR$ is an ideal of $R$ containing $\mathfrak{m}$ properly.

Then $\mathfrak{m} \subset \mathfrak{m} + rR \subset R$ and since $\mathfrak{m}$ is maximal and $r \notin \mathfrak{m}$ then $\mathfrak{m} \neq \mathfrak{m} + rR $ and $\mathfrak{m} + rR = R.$\

Now, since $1 \in R,$ then $1 = m + rs$ for some $m \in \mathfrak{m}$ and $s \in R.$ So, $1 - rs = m \in \mathfrak{m} $ which means $1 - rs + \mathfrak{m} = \mathfrak{m}.$ Therefore, $$1 + \mathfrak{m} = rs + \mathfrak{m} = (r + \mathfrak{m})(s + \mathfrak{m})$$

Hence, for every $\mathfrak{m} \neq r + \mathfrak{m}$ in $R / \mathfrak{m},$ there exists $ s + \mathfrak{m}$ in $R / \mathfrak{m},$ such that $(r + \mathfrak{m})(s + \mathfrak{m}) = 1 + \mathfrak{m}$ where $1 + \mathfrak{m}$ is the multiplicative identity element of $R / \mathfrak{m}.$ And since $R$ is commutative then $$(r + \mathfrak{m})(s + \mathfrak{m}) = (s + \mathfrak{m})(r + \mathfrak{m}) = 1 + \mathfrak{m}$$

Hence, every non-zero element of $R / \mathfrak{m}$ is a unit and since the zero element of $R / \mathfrak{m}$ is $\mathfrak{m}$ then $R^* = R\setminus \mathfrak{m}.$

In this second proof I do not see if I really proved the required or not, so could anyone help me in proving the required if I did not do that or correct my mistakes if I was doing that?

A trivial question on the second proof, why $rR$ is clearly an ideal? could anyone explains that to me please?

In general, I would appreciate if I saw a smart, elegant, simple and logically correct proof of the required.

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    By the axiom of choice, every non-unit element is contained in a maximal ideal. Conversely, is something is a unit, it certainly cannot be contained in the maximal ideal. – LAGC Nov 19 '20 at 01:08
  • @LAGC that is cool. But I can not prove what you said so I can not use it to solve my question. Could you please (if you do not mind and have time) answer the questions I asked? –  Nov 19 '20 at 01:13
  • If $a\in R$ is nonunit, take the union of all the proper ideals which contain $a$. This must be maximal. This shows that every nonunit is a maximal ideal and you are done. – LAGC Nov 19 '20 at 01:20
  • Why taking the union of all the proper ideals which contain $a$ will be a maximal ? do you have a proof for that? .....What about my second proof? @LAGC .... can you please give me your feedback on the second proof? –  Nov 19 '20 at 01:23
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    You've shown every nonzero element of $R/m$ is a unit in $R/m$. This was certainly clear since by the hint, you know $R/m$ is a field, so your proof is not necessary. But this is not enough. Because you need that every element of $R\setminus m$ is a unit in $R$. In particular, one way to know why your proof is not correct is because you do not use the fact that $R$ is local anywhere. – LAGC Nov 19 '20 at 01:30
  • In response to your other question, the union of all proper ideals which contain $a$ must be maximal: any ideal which contains the union of all proper ideals containing $a$ must itself contain $a$, and therefore must be inside the union of all proper ideals containing $a$. – LAGC Nov 19 '20 at 01:31

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Given any commutative ring $A$, the relation $A \setminus \mathrm{U}(A)=\displaystyle\bigcup \mathscr{Max}(A)$ holds, where $\mathrm{U}(A)$ indicates the units of the ring and $\mathscr{Max}(A)$ the maximal spectrum, i.e. the collection of all maximal ideals.

On the one hand, it is elementary that any proper ideal must be disjoint from the subset of units, which applies in particular to maximal ideals. This justifies the inclusion $\displaystyle\bigcup\mathscr{Max}(A) \subseteq A \setminus \mathrm{U}(A)$.

Conversely, consider a nonunit $x \in A \setminus \mathrm{U}(A)$. The principal ideal $Ax$ will then be proper and thus included in a certain maximal ideal $M \in \mathscr{Max}(A)$ by virtue of Krull's theorem. This proves the converse inclusion $A \setminus \mathrm{U}(A) \subseteq \displaystyle\bigcup\mathscr{Max}(A)$.

When $A$ is local $\mathscr{Max}(A)$ is a singleton, and the above general relation reduces to precisely the claim you seek to prove.

ΑΘΩ
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  • I do not see this statement "On the one hand, it is elementary that any proper ideal must be disjoint from the subset of units, which applies in particular to maximal ideals" can you explain it more please? –  Nov 19 '20 at 01:44
  • @Math What can you say about an ideal $I$ that contains a unit $u$? Try to think about it. Explore first the particular case when that unit is the unity of the ring, $u=1_A$. – ΑΘΩ Nov 19 '20 at 01:49
  • It will be the whole ring. so what? –  Nov 19 '20 at 01:52
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    @Math As it is forced to be the whole ring it is thus not a proper ideal. We thus have the implication "contains a unit therefore improper". By contraposition we infer that "proper entails disjoint from subset of units". – ΑΘΩ Nov 19 '20 at 01:56
  • Thank you very much! it is so lucid now. –  Nov 19 '20 at 02:06
  • Where did we usethe fact that $A$ is local in your proof? –  Nov 19 '20 at 02:08
  • @Math I am glad you find it so. The special case in which $A$ is local is discussed in the very last sentence of the answer. Did you read it carefully? – ΑΘΩ Nov 19 '20 at 02:08
  • Ohh sorry for the stupid question. –  Nov 19 '20 at 02:10
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