11

Show that for $p>1$ and $x \ge 0$:

$$\dfrac{2}{\pi}\int_{x}^{px}\left(\dfrac{\sin{t}}{t}\right)^2\,\mathrm dt\le 1-\dfrac{1}{p}$$

My idea is to use $$\sin{x}=x-\dfrac{1}{3!}x^3+\dfrac{1}{5!}x^5-\cdots $$

math110
  • 93,304
  • 1
    For $x=0$, if we choose $p < 1$, the inequality does not hold! – Isomorphism May 15 '13 at 12:07
  • sorry,I have edit,Thank you – math110 May 15 '13 at 12:11
  • Your question is phrased as an isolated problem, without any further information or context. This does not match many users' quality standards, so it may attract downvotes, or be (temporarily) closed. To prevent that, please [edit] the question. This will help you recognise and resolve the issues. Concretely: please provide context, and include your work and thoughts on the problem. These changes can help in formulating more appropriate answers. – Lord_Farin May 15 '13 at 12:16
  • @Lord_Farin I don't think this is a homework problem. – Shuhao Cao May 15 '13 at 12:17
  • yes,This problem is not easy. – math110 May 15 '13 at 12:42
  • What if we do like -- ? $$\int_{x}^{px}\left(\frac{\sin t}{t}\right)^2 dt = -\dfrac{1}{4}\int_{x}^{px}\dfrac{1}{t^2}(e^{2jt} + e^{-2jt} - 2) , dt$$ I am not sure if it could end up in a simpler derivation, just an idea. – ramgorur Jul 09 '13 at 20:42

2 Answers2

11

This is quite a difficult problem, and I found it very enjoyable. Here is the solution I found:

First, we give some simple bounds when $x$ is large, or $px$ is small. If $x\geq\frac{2}{\pi},$ then by using the bound $|\sin(t)|\leq1$, we have that $$ \frac{2}{\pi}\int_{x}^{px}\left(\frac{\sin(t)}{t}\right)^{2}dt\leq\frac{2}{\pi}\int_{x}^{px}\frac{1}{t^{2}}dt=\frac{2}{\pi x}\left(1-\frac{1}{p}\right)\leq1-\frac{1}{p}. $$ Similarly, if $px\leq\frac{\pi}{2}$, then since $\frac{\text{sin}(t)}{t}\leq1$, it follows that $$ \frac{2}{\pi}\int_{x}^{px}\left(\frac{\sin(t)}{t}\right)^{2}dt\leq\frac{2}{\pi}\left(px-x\right)=\frac{2xp}{\pi}\left(1-\frac{1}{p}\right)\leq\left(1-\frac{1}{p}\right). $$ Now, assume that $0\leq x\leq\frac{2}{\pi}$, and that $px\geq\frac{\pi}{2}$. Then notice that $$ \frac{2}{\pi}\int_{x}^{px}\left(\frac{\sin(t)}{t}\right)^{2}dt=1-\frac{2}{\pi}\int_{px}^{\infty}\left(\frac{\sin(t)}{t}\right)^{2}dt-\frac{2}{\pi}\int_{0}^{x}\left(\frac{\sin(t)}{t}\right)^{2}dt $$ since $\int_{0}^{\infty}\left(\frac{\sin(t)}{t}\right)^{2}dt=\frac{\pi}{2}$. We will now find a bound on the other two terms. Working over an interval of length $\pi$, by pulling out a lower bound for $\frac{1}{t^{2}}$, we have that for any $y$

$$ \int_{y}^{y+\pi}\left(\frac{\sin(t)}{t}\right)^{2}dt\geq\frac{1}{\left(y+\pi\right)^{2}}\int_{0}^{\pi}\sin^{2}(t)dt\geq\frac{\pi}{2}\int_{y+\pi}^{y+2\pi}\frac{1}{t^{2}}dt, $$ and so $$ \frac{2}{\pi}\int_{px}^{\infty}\left(\frac{\sin(t)}{t}\right)^{2}dt\geq\int_{px+\pi}^{\infty}\frac{1}{t^{2}}dt=\frac{1}{px+\pi}. $$ Since the function $\frac{\sin(t)}{t}$ is monotonically decreasing on the interval $\left[0,\frac{2}{\pi}\right],$ it follows that for $x\leq\frac{2}{\pi}$ we have

$$\frac{1}{x}\int_{0}^{x}\left(\frac{\sin(t)}{t}\right)^{2}dt\geq\frac{\pi}{2}\int_{0}^{\frac{2}{\pi}}\left(\frac{\sin(t)}{t}\right)^{2}dt\geq\frac{\pi}{2}\cdot\frac{5}{3\pi},$$

and hence

$$ \frac{2}{\pi}\int_{0}^{x}\left(\frac{\sin(t)}{t}\right)^{2}dt\geq\frac{5x}{3\pi}. $$

Now, notice that since $px\geq\frac{\pi}{2},$ and $p>1$, by plugging them in directly, we have that

$$ \frac{5\left(xp\right)^{2}}{3\pi}+\frac{2}{3}px+p-\pi>\frac{5\pi}{12}+\frac{\pi}{3}+1-\pi=1-\frac{\pi}{4}>0. $$

Rearranging the above by dividing through by both $(px+\pi)$ and $p$, we obtain the inequality

$$\frac{5}{3\pi}x+\frac{1}{px+\pi}>\frac{1}{p},$$ for $px\geq\frac{\pi}{2}$, and $p>1$. It then follows that $$ \frac{2}{\pi}\int_{px}^{\infty}\left(\frac{\sin(t)}{t}\right)^{2}dt+\frac{2}{\pi}\int_{0}^{x}\left(\frac{\sin(t)}{t}\right)^{2}dt\geq\frac{1}{p}, $$ for $x\leq\frac{2}{\pi},$ and $px\geq\frac{\pi}{2}$, and hence we have shown that for all $x\geq0$, and all $p>1$, $$ \int_{x}^{px}\left(\frac{\sin(t)}{t}\right)^{2}dt\leq1-\frac{1}{p}, $$ as desired.

Eric Naslund
  • 72,099
9

Substitute $x=e^y$, $p=e^q$ and $t=e^u$. The problem becomes $$\frac{2}{\pi}\int_y^{y+q}e^{-u}\sin^2e^u du\le1-e^{-q}$$

Next,
$$f(u):=e^{-u}\sin^2e^u\le e^{-|u|}$$ If $u>0$, it is because $\sin^2 e^u\le 1$. If $u<0$ it is because $|\frac{\sin e^u}{e^u}|\le 1$.

If $y<y+q<0$, or $0<y<y+q$, the integral of $e^{-|u|}$ is clearly less than $1-e^{-q}$.

Now assume $y<0<y+q$:

$$\int_y^{y+q} e^{-|u|}du = 2-e^y-e^{-y-q}$$ which is maximized at $y=-q/2$ resulting in $$\int_y^{y+q} e^{-|u|}du = 2-2e^{-q/2}$$ Such that $$2-2e^{-q/2} < \frac{\pi}{2}(1-e^{-q})$$ given that $p<\dfrac{\pi^2}{(4-\pi)^2}=13.4$.

Now given that $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-u}\sin^2e^u du =\pi/2$$ we want the tails of the integral to add up to more than $\pi /2p$.

  1. If $u<0$: $$e^u-\frac{e^{3u}}{3} \leq f(u) \leq e^u$$ then $$e^y-\frac{e^{3y}}{9}\leq\int_{-\infty}^y f(u) du \leq e^y$$ so the tail is bounded by $x-x^3/9$ and $x$.

  2. If $u>0$: $$f(u)=e^{-u}(1-\cos 2 e^{u})/2$$ The oscillation is both diminishing and speeding up, so $$\int_{y+q}^{\infty}e^{-u}\cos 2e^{u} du \leq \int_{y+q}^z e^{-u} du$$ where $e^{y+q}$ and $e^z$ differ by $\pi/2$. Therefore, $$\int_{y+q}^{\infty}f(u)du \geq \int_z^{\infty}e^{-u}/2 du = e^{-z}/2 = \frac{1}{2xp+\pi}$$

We now need to show the sum of the two tails is at least $\pi/2p$; we need: $$ p\left(x-\frac{x^3}{9}+\frac{1}{2xp+\pi}\right)\geq \frac{\pi}{2}$$

  1. If $xp<\frac{9\pi}{16}$ then the third term is at least $\frac{8p}{17\pi}$ which we can take at least $\frac{\pi}{2}$ when $p>13.4$.
  2. If $xp>\frac{9\pi}{16}$ then the first two terms are at least $\frac{\pi}{2}$.

Thus we have covered all values of $p$, for $1 < p < 13.4$ and $p>\frac{9\pi}{16}$.

Empy2
  • 50,853