Let ($X, \tau_X$) and ($Y, \tau_Y$) be topological spaces. Let $\mathcal{B}(X)=\sigma(\tau_X)$ and $\mathcal{B}(Y)=\sigma(\tau_Y)$ be the corresponding Borel sigma algebras. Do we have that if $\mathcal{B} \subseteq \mathcal{P}(X)$ is a sigma algebra such that every continuous function $f:X\rightarrow Y$ is $\mathcal{B}/\mathcal{B}(Y)$ measurable, then $\mathcal{B}(X) \subseteq \mathcal{B}$?
If not, does it hold for the reals? i.e. when $X=\mathbb{R}^m,Y=\mathbb{R}^n$ for some $m,n$.
My attempt:
Let $f^{-1}(\tau_Y) \equiv \{f^{-1}(E)|E\in\tau_Y\}$. Then $f$ continuous iff $f^{-1}(\tau_Y) \subseteq \tau_X$, and $f$ Borel measurable iff $f^{-1}(\sigma(\tau_Y))=\sigma(f^{-1}(\tau_Y)) \subseteq \sigma(\tau_X)$. Assume that $f$ is $\mathcal{B}/\mathcal{B}(Y)$ measurable, then $f^{-1}(\sigma(\tau_Y))=\sigma(f^{-1}(\tau_Y)) \subseteq \mathcal{B}$. We now want to show that $\sigma(\tau_X) \subseteq \mathcal{B}$, and I don't know how to proceed.
For the real case, I found the following answer, but it doesn't seem to make sense for me, could someone please elaborate further?
In fact, let ($X, \tau_X$) and ($Y, \tau_Y$) be topological spaces, such $\mathcal{B}(X) \subsetneq \mathcal{P}(X)$. Take $\mathcal{B} = \mathcal{P}(X)$. Then all functions from $X$ to $Y$ are $\mathcal{B}/\mathcal{B}(Y)$ measurable. So, all continuous functions from $X$ to $Y$ are $\mathcal{B}/\mathcal{B}(Y)$ measurable. But, it is not true that $\mathcal{B}= \mathcal{P}(X) \subseteq \mathcal{B}(X)$.
– Ramiro Sep 24 '21 at 04:52