Let $\sqrt{n+\sqrt{n+\sqrt{n+...+\sqrt{n+f(n)}}}}=x$. Therefore, $$n+\sqrt{n+\sqrt{n+...+\sqrt{n+f(n)}}}=x^2$$ $$x^2-x-n=0$$ $$x=\sqrt{n+\sqrt{n+\sqrt{n+...+\sqrt{n+f(n)}}}}=\frac{1 \pm \sqrt{1+4n}}{2}$$
It seems counter-intuitive at first that $f(n)$ doesn't have an effect on the final answer. If $f(n)$ were $\frac{1}{n!}$ or $e^{2.3n^2}$, or anything else for that matter, we still get the same formula for the result.
My question regarding this is:
- Is this applicable for any $f(n)$ at the end of the infinite nested radical (I haven't studied much about properties of functions but have heard of terms like 'odd function', 'even function', '$f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$' etc)?
- Is this result because of the infinitesimally small effect of $f(n)$ on the result?
EDIT : Some people have commented that there is '1 less $n$ post squaring'. There are infinite '$\sqrt{n+\sqrt{}}$' before I added $f(n)$ at the end.