This is what I have so far:
All possible combinations:
BB GG BG GB
$P$(Boy $\mid$ Girl)$= 1/2$ given that the sample space is reduced to
GG and GB
However, I am not sure if this is the right way to approach this question.
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2Why are you excluding $BG$? – Arturo Magidin Feb 25 '21 at 01:25
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Ah, I see. So the solution would be 1/3 because the question says at least 1 girl. Correct? – Jones Feb 25 '21 at 01:27
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The question gets asked routinely here. Did you do a search? E.g., here, here, here, here... – Arturo Magidin Feb 25 '21 at 01:28
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It is: $\mathsf P({BG , GB}\mid {BG, GB, GG}) = 2/3$ – Graham Kemp Feb 25 '21 at 01:43