In the book Concrete Mathematics, exercise 1.9, one is given:
$P(n): x_1...x_n \leq (\frac{x_1 + ... + x_n}{n})^n$ if $x_1, ..., x_n \geq 0$.
and is asked the following question:
By setting $x_n = (x_1 + ... + x_{n-1}) / (n-1)$, prove that $P(n)$ implies $P(n-1)$ whenever $n > 1$.
The solution to this is given here: Backwards induction to show that $x_1\cdots x_n \leq ((x_1+\cdots+x_n)/n )^n$, but my question is:
Why are we setting $x_n = (x_1 + ... + x_{n-1}) / (n-1)$? This equation isn't true for all $x_i$ and all $n$, since taking $x_1 = 0$, $x_2 = 1$ and $n = 2$, the above equation results in $x_2 = x_1$. Aren't we trying to prove $P(n)$ in general, so for all all $x_i$ and all $n$?
EDIT: to be clear, my question is not on exercise 1.9.b, nor on 1.9.c, but as stated, on 1.9.a. More precisely, I don't understand how one is allowed to conclude the general statement of $P(n)$ implies $P(n-1)$ by choosing a particular value of $x_n$.