I have been told it is very simple, but I cannot work it out. I was thinking I use that I know the left hand side converges?
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Compare the sum to the integral $\int_m^\infty dx/x^2$ or $\int_{m-1}^\infty dx/x^2$. It does not matter which since their difference tends to $0$ as $m \to \infty$. – KCd Mar 09 '21 at 14:53
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1Please describe what have you tried to solve this problem so we can help you :) – Lord Commander Mar 09 '21 at 14:53
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You can do it by integration – Aditya Dwivedi Mar 09 '21 at 14:53
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Already asked here, and not just once (I suspect). – metamorphy Mar 09 '21 at 14:57
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Also: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/3361638/42969, https://math.stackexchange.com/q/2591225/42969. – Martin R Mar 09 '21 at 15:08
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If $m\geq 2$, then $$ \sum\limits_{n = m}^\infty {\frac{1}{{n^2 }}} \le \sum\limits_{n = m}^\infty {\frac{1}{{n(n - 1)}}} = \sum\limits_{n = m}^\infty {\left( {\frac{1}{{n - 1}} - \frac{1}{n}} \right)} = \frac{1}{{m - 1}} \leq \frac{2}{m}. $$
Gary
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